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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › blipton 2008
in finding terminal value of the property why are we discounting using 5 years instead of 6 years?
and also, are we supposed to convert it into nominal?
ok.from bpp they used 6.2(1+8%)^5-1200=7910 .was wondering why 5 years was used
