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Leases – sale and leaseback Example (at fair value) – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)

VIVA

Reader Interactions

Comments

  1. verweijlisa says

    January 19, 2025 at 12:14 am

    ?

    P= PMT × (1?(1+r) -n
    __________________
    r

    PV = 1M x (1 – (1 + 0.05)-10
    ____________________
    0.05

    PV = 1M x (1 – 0.6139132535)
    _______________________
    0.05

    PV = 1M x (0.3860867465)
    ?_______________________
    ? 0.05

    PV = 386986.7465/0.05 = 7721734.93

    Round up to nearest whole number = 7721735

    Hope this helps!

    where:
    P=Present value of an annuity stream
    PMT=Dollar amount of each annuity payment
    r=Interest rate (also known as discount rate)
    n=Number of periods in which payments will be made
    ?

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  2. kamo7293 says

    November 7, 2024 at 10:57 pm

    For anyone confused why the Right-of-use Asset is 6,486,257
    Chris multiplied the Carrying Value of 8,400,000 by 77.21735%, which on the calculator is 6,486,257.4

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  3. phoben says

    November 2, 2024 at 4:25 am

    Is there some calculation error ?
    If based on Annuity from the table 10year and 5% it will give an amount of 7.722 which multiply, it would not give 7,721,735.

    Additionally, if I take $8.4m x 77.22% the amount will only give 6,486,480 ass well.

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  4. phoben says

    October 31, 2024 at 12:31 pm

    Where did the balancing figure came about ?

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    • kamo7293 says

      November 7, 2024 at 11:09 pm

      There are 4 values
      DR Bank 10million
      CR Asset 8.4million
      CR Liability 7,721,735
      DR Asset 6,486,257

      the DR add up to 16,486,257 , and the CR add up to 16,121,735
      the difference of 364,522 is the gain/loss of rights transferred to the buyer
      Since the Debits are greater than the Credits, that difference was a gain on the SPL, and thus was Credited to SPL.
      hope that helped

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      • Mustafy says

        March 5, 2025 at 11:02 pm

        Just to be exactly sure how this can be calculated. The amount used as balancing figure is the proportion of gain on the asset not leased back and can be Calculated as (1 – PV of Lease/Sale Price) * Total Gains on Sale. This is simply (1 – 77.22%) * (10m – 8.4m). Note that 77.22% is the proportion of the amount of lease-back to the sales proceeds, so the balance (1-77.22%) is not leased i.e. assumed to be with the Seller-Lessee

        (1 – 7,721,735/10,000,000) * 1,600,000 = 364,522

  5. ROMEO1z says

    July 2, 2024 at 8:25 pm

    77.22% of 8.4m gave me 6486480

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  6. ROMEO1z says

    July 2, 2024 at 8:25 pm

    77.22% *8400000 gave me 6486480 not 6486257

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  7. Mirza says

    November 18, 2023 at 4:02 am

    Hi, is there a systemtic method to calculate the Gain/Loss instead of being a pluging/balancing figure?

    thanks in advance….

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    • Mustafy says

      March 5, 2025 at 11:04 pm

      Yes!

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    • Mustafy says

      March 5, 2025 at 11:04 pm

      Yes!

      Just to be exactly sure how this can be calculated. The amount used as balancing figure is the proportion of gain on the asset not leased back and can be Calculated as (1 – PV of Lease/Sale Price) * Total Gains on Sale. This is simply (1 – 77.22%) * (10m – 8.4m). Note that 77.22% is the proportion of the amount of lease-back to the sales proceeds, so the balance (1-77.22%) is not leased i.e. assumed to be with the Seller-Lessee

      (1 – 7,721,735/10,000,000) * 1,600,000 = 364,522

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  8. Shuka- says

    November 3, 2022 at 3:27 pm

    why do we multiple cash flow by annuity factor to derive the present value of the future payment? Shouldn’t it be future payment/ annuity factor so we can know the present value?

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    • tules says

      August 28, 2023 at 3:55 pm

      No. An annuity factor takes ALL payments into account over a given period, not just one year.

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  9. Esther.2020 says

    January 16, 2021 at 10:33 pm

    Hi every. Hello Chris Thanks for the Lecture.
    just want a clarification on the value of the total proceeds from the asset($10,000,000), since its the same as the current fair value ($10,000,000)
    in a situation where the values are different, what do i use, the Fair value or the total proceeds? thanks

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  10. shirleenlai says

    May 25, 2020 at 7:13 am

    Sir, may I know why we use 77.22% * 7721735= 6486257 for right of use asset?

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    • shirleenlai says

      May 25, 2020 at 7:39 am

      opps, is 77.22% * 8.4 million = 6486257, may I get the explanation?

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      • shah369 says

        May 30, 2020 at 2:25 pm

        did you understand why he used 77.22% * 8.4 million instead of 77.22% 7,721735

      • mariakurina says

        July 8, 2020 at 5:12 pm

        Because you have to apply retained right rate to previous Carrying value of an asset, which is $8.4 mln.

        $7.7 mln is a PV of lease payments, not the previous CV.

        It’s specified in a previous lecture…

  11. accountant-@100 says

    April 1, 2020 at 9:15 pm

    I love this

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  12. mahamba says

    December 11, 2019 at 12:54 pm

    hie CHRIS

    1,000,000 * 7.722 =7,722,000

    how come you got 7,721,735

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    • mariakurina says

      July 8, 2020 at 4:58 pm

      Hi! You get 7,721,735 if you calculate PV (CF*Annuity factor) for each payment and then sum these PV up.
      Year PV
      1 952,381
      2 907,029
      3 863,838
      4 822,702
      5 783,526
      6 746,215
      7 710,681
      8 676,839
      9 644,609
      10 613,913
      ______________
      7,721,735

      Alternatively you can get total Annuity factor by calculating Annuity factor for each payment, averaging them and multiplying by 10:
      Year Annuity factor
      1 0.95
      2 0.91
      3 0.86
      4 0.82
      5 0.78
      6 0.75
      7 0.71
      8 0.68
      9 0.64
      10 0.61
      ___________
      7.722

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      • mariakurina says

        July 8, 2020 at 4:59 pm

        anyway both ways are correct and difference is just caused by rounding the average Annuity factor

  13. prernaa says

    August 19, 2019 at 5:35 pm

    i didnt get how did we arrive at the figure 7.722

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    • prernaa says

      August 19, 2019 at 5:46 pm

      I did the PV calculation in excel for 10 years
      but that is a lengthy procedure is there any formula?

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      • NazarBaig says

        July 9, 2020 at 7:53 pm

        Use a simple annuity formula. PV=R*{1-(1+r)^-n/r}. This will calculate the annuity factor (for constant cashflow/rentals only) and multiply the annuity factor by the Rental. you can calculate it easily

  14. ashiksajan006 says

    May 8, 2019 at 3:24 am

    I dont understand how the balancing figure got

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    • mariakurina says

      July 8, 2020 at 5:14 pm

      Dr 10 + Dr 6.5 = +16.5
      Cr 8.4 + Cr 7.7 = -16.1

      Difference = 0.4 missing on Credit side to balance the accounting entry

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      • Daakiryare says

        October 18, 2022 at 7:12 am

        thanks we understand

  15. akhilvarghese says

    October 29, 2018 at 9:11 am

    Hi sir,
    why the balancing figure a become a profit ?? if they appear in the credit side.. can you please tell me the logic behind it
    so it will be loss if the balance appear in the debit side?
    ps tell the accounting logic

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    • mariakurina says

      July 8, 2020 at 5:18 pm

      Because income is Credit, and expense is Debit.

      Retained earnings are Credit. Getting an income eventually credits RE which means increasing RE. Expenses debits RE and reduces it.

      This is really a very basic stuff. If you have such questions maybe it would be better to review FA first…

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  16. manan66 says

    August 16, 2018 at 12:28 pm

    Hi Chris,

    In the example its $1M payment at end of the lease period that is 10 years so the PV should be 100k * 7.722 ? i am confused as to why do we calculate it this way..

    i watched the lecture many times but not able to understand..

    Thanks

    Manan

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    • oek1 says

      April 22, 2019 at 7:39 pm

      Hey manan,
      You should take the cash flow per year when calculating annuity.

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  17. allenchanyc says

    August 6, 2018 at 5:10 pm

    Hi, I want to know how to compute the AF(1-10)5% = 7.722?

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    • allenchanyc says

      August 7, 2018 at 7:38 am

      I found out how by googling the formula…

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    • kavan says

      August 12, 2019 at 7:35 am

      (1 – (1 + r)^-n) / r

      (1 – (1 + 0.05)^-10) / 0.05

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      • samimii says

        August 13, 2019 at 7:16 am

        Thanks

      • prernaa says

        August 19, 2019 at 5:38 pm

        i didnt get it
        the formula is (1/1+0.05^10)

      • mulengakaunda says

        November 15, 2019 at 9:10 am

        please help sir in detail how to get 7.722,i am not understanding because when i try to calculate the formula (1/1+0.05^10)=1,where are you getting 7.722

      • aarti2407 says

        October 14, 2019 at 6:07 pm

        Exactly! This way we get 6.14%!

  18. william9 says

    July 13, 2018 at 9:49 pm

    Sorry Chris, possibly a dumb question but please can you explain how you arrive at the balancing figure of 364,522 in the above example? Thanks

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    • william9 says

      July 13, 2018 at 9:53 pm

      please ignore. I found it in the notes (:

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    • Gabby says

      January 16, 2019 at 11:56 pm

      I don’t get it. Please help. How did u get the balancing figure?

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      • borkarrahul95 says

        January 19, 2019 at 4:55 pm

        2278265+6486257-8400000=364522

    • ananyajoy says

      July 13, 2019 at 5:08 am

      Fairvalue-leaseliability/fairvalue*profit(difference between fair value and carryingvalue).
      try using this formula.i got the answer from this formula

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      • pauldaniel2000 says

        January 14, 2020 at 5:32 pm

        I think we should use the ordinary annuity table and factors by clicking PVOA Table

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