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Impairments – Impairment review – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)

VIVA

Reader Interactions

Comments

  1. skansman says

    August 2, 2021 at 6:41 pm

    What’s the difference between impairment of NCA and devaluation of NCA? treatment?

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    • francihco says

      October 24, 2021 at 8:54 am

      https://www.differencebetween.com/difference-between-revaluation-and-vs-impairment/

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  2. cathyj66cjj says

    February 15, 2021 at 8:26 pm

    I have a technical question please on FR.

    On recognition of an Impairment, what happens to the accumulated depreciation when the asset is written down to the new carrying value?

    Thanks.

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  3. munie says

    February 24, 2020 at 10:06 am

    Good day
    May I please understand why in the computation of value in use we used 5000*3.791

    and why did we not use the formula C(1+10%)^5

    Thank you in advance for the answer

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    • megaziz says

      April 1, 2020 at 8:50 pm

      I believe we are discounting the future cash flows to present value for the VIU. Your formula is based on inflating the value.

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      • sagarsingh says

        April 2, 2020 at 8:50 am

        After using the given formula, I believe the answer still remains the same. They have directly given the annuity factor.

    • mariakurina says

      June 9, 2020 at 8:42 pm

      1 / (1 x (1 + 10%) ^ n) – is a discounting factor. Considering the fact that we expect to receive 5,000 each year, discount factor will also be different for each year:
      Year 1 – 0.909090909
      Year 2 – 0.826446281
      Year 3 – 0.751314801
      Year 4 – 0.683013455
      Year 5 – 0.620921323
      Then each factor is multiplied by 5,000 for each year, then summed and it gives us the same 18,955.

      Annuity factor, in contrast, already counts the fact that we receive this 5,000 annually for 5 years: =(1-(1+10%)^-5)/10%.
      Therefore it makes it way easier to calculate one factor and multiply it just one time.

      Also factors are given in exam and they always should be used if there’s a need.

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  4. jaymzo says

    February 21, 2020 at 2:11 pm

    Your Value in use (5000*3.791)=18,955

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  5. chichi2018 says

    October 17, 2019 at 8:02 am

    what about the cost of capital at 10 % do we just ignore it ?

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  6. ajayf says

    October 2, 2019 at 6:40 am

    what about the cost of capital 10%

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  7. anamazingorange says

    August 5, 2019 at 6:00 pm

    18955, not 18995. at 9:48

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  8. zeddjayy says

    October 6, 2018 at 12:21 pm

    how is the depreciation 5,000?

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    • eustacia says

      October 6, 2018 at 8:05 pm

      25000 is dep for 5 years, 5000 is dep for 1 year. we take dep of only 1 year as the reporting period is of 1 year.

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