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Group SFP – Example (workings) – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)

VIVA

Reader Interactions

Comments

  1. silia85boz says

    December 7, 2022 at 11:11 am

    Good morning All,

    Should we mention in our Group SFP that the investment was 拢NIL? Or there’s no need to mention it?

    Thank you 馃檪

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  2. ZufarbekE says

    September 5, 2022 at 6:36 am

    Hi cornflakes,
    You forgot to add retained earnings of J’s at acq which is 100 000. So NCI = (Net Assets + Retained Earnings) x 20% = 300 000 x 0.2 = 60 000

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  3. cornflakes says

    February 4, 2020 at 1:53 am

    Dear Sir,

    Is it possible to provide the amendment to the question as mentioned above.
    I tried the NCI at FV as $200,000 X 20% =$40,000. and it would not balance, yet according to the working #3 and #4 this is the correct calculation.

    Please explain. I’m confused.

    Thanks in advance.

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    • magictec says

      April 13, 2020 at 10:43 am

      I did same, my NCI was 40000 and it balanced. Check ur goodwill make sure its 340k and ur Net asset at acquisition shld be 300k. I am wondering why d total share is 200 and total nci is also 200. Its doesnt seem right

      Log in to Reply
    • ZufarbekE says

      September 5, 2022 at 6:36 am

      Hi cornflakes,
      You forgot to add retained earnings of J鈥檚 at acq which is 100 000. So NCI = (Net Assets + Retained Earnings) x 20% = 300 000 x 0.2 = 60 000

      Log in to Reply
  4. mubasher21 says

    January 23, 2019 at 1:01 pm

    Hi Sir,
    In Kaplan, test your understanding 1 of consolidated statement of financial position it says that Dickens acquired 16,000 shares of $1 on 1 jan 20X8, but in the working 3 they are taking fair value as $60000, why?

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  5. Valeria says

    September 2, 2018 at 11:05 am

    Hello sir,
    I’m afraid I don’t understand why you assume FV of NCI to be the whole 200k USD. The phrase is “the FV of Jones’s equity was 200k at acq.”. And the equity share capital for Jones is 200k, so why don’t you consider the 200k for the total, making NCI FV at acquisiton only 20%of it (so 20%x200.000=40.000 instead of 200.000)?
    Thank you very much .

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    • Md. Mamun Hossain says

      September 5, 2018 at 6:38 pm

      Yes, you are right. FV of NCI should be $40,000 instead of $200,000.

      Log in to Reply
      • floralin2012 says

        August 15, 2020 at 9:10 pm

        1540 is attribute to parent I believe.

    • accamine says

      September 22, 2018 at 1:10 pm

      Even I was wondering the same,

      Log in to Reply
    • P2-D2 says

      December 31, 2018 at 3:07 pm

      Hi,

      It will be clearer in the exam the far value of the NCI and I’ll make a minor amendment to the question to prevent any further confusion.

      Thanks

      Log in to Reply
      • cornflakes says

        February 4, 2020 at 1:57 am

        Dear Sir,

        Is it possible to provide the amendment as stated above. I tried the NCI at FV as $200,000 X 20% =$40,000 and it did not balance, yet this is the correct calculation according to workings #3 and #4.

        Please explain as I am confused.
        Thanking you in advance.

      • kamo7293 says

        November 20, 2024 at 11:07 pm

        Hello, I would like to point out that It appears that this amendment hasn’t been made in the current notes. the Question still states that “the fair value of Jones’ equity shares acquired was $200k at acquisition”
        the answer in the back is using the 200 as the F.v of the NCI as you have.

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