- This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 months ago by
John Moffat.
John Moffat.-
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lokeshdh00
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Dear John, You are healthy and Happy.
I understood that in mix variance one will be adverse and another will be favorable, as one is replacing another.
But i didn’t really see the logic behind why if yield variance is adverse , the analysis ( X & Y ) both materials will have adverse yield variance & vice versa.It just hit me while i was asking , It it because we used extra total materials and The propotion of the material mix is always 100 % , and even if we use extra than we should have then it will be in same propotion. like if 100 Kg was over all wastage; it was in same actual propotion of material mix ?
John Moffat
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Yes – that is the reason.
If the mix remains at standard and the total used is more, then it will be more for each of the materials.
lokeshdh00
- Topics: 105
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it might be silly to ask, But when question asks to “analyse” a yield variance, does it mean to do yield variance for both X and Y material. Or will it simply ask to do particular variance for each material.
lokeshdh00
- Topics: 105
- Replies: 95
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Also, Am i always supposed to comment in section C even when its not asked explicitly ?
John Moffat
- Topics: 57
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If asked to analyse then you do need to show it for each of the materials.
You are only expected to comment where the question asks for a comment (but at least one part of each of the Section C questions will always be asking for a comment).
lokeshdh00
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