• Skip to primary navigation
  • Skip to main content
  • Skip to primary sidebar
Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums for ACCA and CIMA exams

  • ACCA
  • CIMA
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Books
  • Forums
  • Ask AI
  • Search
  • Register
  • Login
  • ACCA Forums
  • Ask ACCA Tutor
  • CIMA Forums
  • Ask CIMA Tutor
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Buy/Sell Books
  • All Forums
  • Latest Topics

20% off ACCA & CIMA Books

OpenTuition recommends the new interactive BPP books for September 2025 exams.
Get your discount code >>

why impairment loss is not allocated to the current assets

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › why impairment loss is not allocated to the current assets

  • This topic has 2 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 2 years ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • December 16, 2022 at 1:59 pm #674763
    xyzc
    Participant
    • Topics: 413
    • Replies: 175
    • ☆☆☆☆

    A cash-generating unit comprises the following assets:
    Building 700000
    Plant and equipment 200000
    Goodwill 90000
    Current assets 20000
    1010000
    One of the machines carried at 40000 is damaged and will have to be scrapped. The recoverable amount of the cash-generating unit is estimated at 750000.
    What will be the carrying amount of the building after the impairment loss has been recognised?
    (to the nearest ‘000)
    In this question why the impairment loss has been allocated to the remainder of the plant and equipment after 40000 has been deducted from the plant and equipment because in the example in the notes on cash generating unit the impairment loss has not been allocated to the remainder of the plant and equipment after deducting the plant and equipment destroyed by fire.
    Also why impairment loss is not allocated to the current assets in this question whilst it is not mentioned in this question that they are at realisable value whereas impairment loss was not allocated to cash and receivables in the example in the notes because they were at realisable value.

    December 29, 2022 at 8:51 am #675167
    syntaxerror
    Participant
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    because current assets are already recorded at fair value,duh!

    December 30, 2022 at 9:48 am #675228
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7163
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    IAS 36 does not apply to assets held under IAS 2 (inventory) or held under IAS 39 (receivables). Thanks.

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Log In

Primary Sidebar

Donate
If you have benefited from our materials, please donate

ACCA News:

ACCA My Exam Performance for non-variant

Applied Skills exams is available NOW

ACCA Options:  “Read the Mind of the Marker” articles

Subscribe to ACCA’s Student Accountant Direct

ACCA CBE 2025 Exams

How was your exam, and what was the exam result?

BT CBE exam was.. | MA CBE exam was..
FA CBE exam was.. | LW CBE exam was..

Donate

If you have benefited from OpenTuition please donate.

PQ Magazine

Latest Comments

  • John Moffat on PM Chapter 12 Questions Quantitative analysis in budgeting
  • Dead0k on PM Chapter 12 Questions Quantitative analysis in budgeting
  • Maede on Professional Ethics – ACCA Audit and Assurance (AA)
  • John Moffat on Overcapitalisation and Overtrading – ACCA Financial Management (FM)
  • AdityaSairam on Overcapitalisation and Overtrading – ACCA Financial Management (FM)

Copyright © 2025 · Support · Contact · Advertising · OpenLicense · About · Sitemap · Comments · Log in