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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › when investor sell goods to associate
When downstream transaction take place we deduct unrealised profit(specifically part of unrealised profit) from value of investment in associate (SOFP). Why we doing that?
Because it’s an unrealised profit and if we are to value the nvestment in the associate as “cost of investment + share of post acquisition retained – impairment since acquisition” then clearly the pup will affect the post acquisition retained figure
Ok?
Thank you
You’re welcome
