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Weighted average cost of capital question – Section C- which DF to use

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Weighted average cost of capital question – Section C- which DF to use

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 1 month ago by LMR1006.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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  • August 24, 2023 at 4:10 pm #690638
    suzanne1706
    Participant
    • Topics: 7
    • Replies: 18
    • ☆

    Hi there,

    I am working on Section C questions for weighted average cost of capital/ CAPM (FM exam BPP question kit). I am trying to understand what discount factors we need to use in order to work out the PV. I can’t seem to understand the answer of 4% and 5%. The risk free rate is 4% but where did 5% come from?

    Question 217:
    The equity beta of Fence Co is 0•9 and the company has issued 10 million ordinary shares. The market value of each ordinary share is $7•50. The company is also financed by 7% bonds with a nominal value of $100 per bond, which will be redeemed in seven years’ time at nominal value. The bonds have a total nominal value of $14 million. Interest on the bonds has just been paid and the current market value of each bond is $107•14.

    Fence Co plans to invest in a project which is different to its existing business operations and has identified a company in the same business area as the project, Hex Co. The equity beta of Hex Co is 1•2 and the company has an equity market value of $54 million. The market value of the debt of Hex Co is $12 million.

    The risk-free rate of return is 4% per year and the average return on the stock market is 11% per year. Both companies pay corporation tax at a rate of 20% per year.

    Required: Calculate the current weighted average cost of capital of Fence Co.

    Answer:

    Cost of equity

    The current cost of equity can be calculated using the capital asset pricing model.
    Equity or market risk premium = 11 – 4 = 7%
    Cost of equity = 4 + (0•9 x 7) = 4 + 6•3 = 10•3%

    After-tax cost of debt

    After-tax interest payment = 100 x 0•07 x (1 – 0•2) = $5•60 per bond

    Year Cash flow DF @ 4% PV $ Df @ 5% PV $
    0 Market value (107.14) 1 -107.14 1 -107.14
    1-7 Interest 5.6 6.002 33.61 5.786 32.40
    7 Redeem 100 0.76 76 0.71 71.10
    2.47 -3.64

    After-tax cost of debt = IRR = 4 + ((5 – 4) x 2·47)/(2·47 + 3·64) = 4 + 0·4 = 4·4%

    Thanks
    🙂

    August 24, 2023 at 5:22 pm #690648
    LMR1006
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 292
    • ☆☆☆

    The cost of Debt is calculated using IRR the % that the NPV of the debt cash flows = 0

    So you need any two %
    Preferably a rate that gives you a + and one that gives you a –

    The risk-free rate is just for use in the calculation of Ke Cost of equity

    The rate of 5% is chosen randomly it came out as a negative so that means 5% is slightly too high therefore 4% is chosen as the second rate.

    I would suggest that you watch the videos on Cost of Debt and WACC

    August 25, 2023 at 9:51 am #690678
    suzanne1706
    Participant
    • Topics: 7
    • Replies: 18
    • ☆

    Thank you 🙂 so in the exam if we got a question like this, we would all have different answers?

    I have watched the lecture but I will re-watch it.

    August 25, 2023 at 3:47 pm #690690
    LMR1006
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 292
    • ☆☆☆

    IRR will never be exact
    The rates chosen will give slight differences
    Only slight…..
    IRR is approximately 5% in this question
    You could get anything between 4.2 and say 5.4 for example
    It makes virtually no difference to the WACC

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