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The Viegem Co question can be found in BPP revision kit.
I wanted to understand why while calculating share of profit of associates we have no done 9/12 , ultimately when we are propertionting alll expense/income then why not this as well ?
I’m well, thanks. The investment in the associate has been held for several years and so has been held for the full year being reported upon, hence there is no requirement to pro-rate the profits.