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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Vernon co
Hi. I just wanted to ask why the professional fees of the bonds in this question are capitalised but then the interest income goes through profit and loss and not through oci. I thought you could only capitalise cost associated with the financial asset if it was fvtoci.
Hi,
If the professional fees are the same as issue costs then they will be expensed for a financial asset held under the fair value through profit or loss category. They will be added to the cost of the financial asset if it is held under fair value through other comprehensive income.
Thanks