Value in use

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May 23, 2022 at 12:28 am #656221
ilham9089
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If an asset is impaired and has to be written down to its value in use instead of FV less costs of disposal, then do we still depreciate it normally like we do with the fair value and historic cost?
May 30, 2022 at 4:20 pm #656862
P2-D2
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Yes, regardless of what the asset has been impaired down to it will still then be depreciated in its usual fashion over the remaining life of the asset.

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