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ilham9089
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If an asset is impaired and has to be written down to its value in use instead of FV less costs of disposal, then do we still depreciate it normally like we do with the fair value and historic cost?
P2-D2
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Yes, regardless of what the asset has been impaired down to it will still then be depreciated in its usual fashion over the remaining life of the asset.
Thanks
ilham9089
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