Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › value at risk
- This topic has 9 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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- November 25, 2014 at 9:34 am #213059
kindly explain how we derive 1.65 value for a 95% confidence level? how to use the standard normal distribution table to find this.
November 25, 2014 at 10:06 am #213067i will try to explain it to you in simple english. 95% confidence level means there is a 5% chance of making a loss. from the shape of the normal diagram there is a 50% chance that some will be above the mean and 50% chance that some will be below. those above the mean are the positive ones and those below are the negative ones. since we a looking at the negative side of things ie if things go wrong, thus subract 5% from 50 and you will get 45% which is 0.45 go to your normal distribution table and look for the figure that will give you 0.45. you will find that it lies between 1.64 will give you 0.04495 and 1.65 wil give you 0.4505. i hope it helps
NOW I WILL ADD THIS TO THE QUESTION IF ANYONE CAN HELPWHAT IS THE SIGNIFICANCE OF THIS 1.65
November 25, 2014 at 3:18 pm #213147Thanks mate!! that was a well brief explanation π
November 26, 2014 at 9:11 am #213322The significance of the 1.65 is that the ‘cut-off’ (the amount that there is a 5% chance of being below) is 1.65 x the standard deviation below the average.
November 26, 2014 at 9:19 am #213328so if the mean was say 50000 and standard deviation say 15%
November 26, 2014 at 11:04 am #213388The standard deviation need to be in $’s
November 26, 2014 at 11:12 am #213398so if the mean is 50000 and the standard devaition is say 5000 it means with a 95% confidence level, there is a 5% chance that the maximum loss will be 1.65 x 5000 = 8250. am i right?
November 26, 2014 at 3:44 pm #213465Almost. There is a 5% chance of it being below 50,000 – 8250 = 41750
November 26, 2014 at 4:03 pm #213481thank you John for the time you have granted me
November 26, 2014 at 4:38 pm #213496You are welcome π
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