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Unwinding Discount BPP Question

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Unwinding Discount BPP Question

  • This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • April 17, 2019 at 3:59 pm #513272
    cchurches
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    Hi im getting confused with unwinding of discount.. the question is:

    Cracker Co set up a gas exploration site on 1 January X1 which will operate for five years. At the end of the 5 years the site will need to be dismantled and the landscape restored. The amount required for dismantling and restoration, discounted at the companies cost of capital of 8% is 1.2m and a provision is set up for this amount.

    What is the total amount charged to P+L for the year-end 31 Dec X2 in respect of these dismantling and restoration costs?

    From what i gather my answer is:

    Y1 – 1200 / 1.08 = 1,111
    Y2 – 1111 / 1.08 = 1,029
    Y3 – 1029 / 1.08 = 953
    Y4 – 953 / 1.08 = 882
    Y5 – 882 / 1.08 = 817

    So at the end of X2 the unwinding of the discount should be 1029*1.08 = 82.32

    So 82.32 plus the depreciation of 240 (1.2m / 5) = 106.32

    The answer though is saying 343,680 and i cannot get my head round it…

    help me 🙂

    April 18, 2019 at 4:04 pm #513413
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7172
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    The 1.2m is the present value, so you don’t need to do any discounting. You just need to do the unwinding. The provision will be 1.2 x 1.08 = 1,296,000 at the end of 20X1, and so the charge to P/L for the next year is 8% of this amount, which gives 103,680.

    Add this to the 240,000 and you have your answer.

    Thanks

    April 13, 2021 at 5:41 pm #617462
    fm444
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    Hi,
    Could you please explain me why we are getting 1.2m as present value and it multiple by 1.08? i dont understand it.
    Thank you in advance,

    April 17, 2021 at 8:50 am #617995
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7172
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    there is no reasoning behind it as they are what are given in the question. Effectively the $1.2 million is the PV of the amount to be paid at the end of five years and the 8% is the company’s cost of capital.

    Thanks

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