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Transfer of excess depreciation

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Transfer of excess depreciation

  • This topic has 10 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 11 posts - 1 through 11 (of 11 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 17, 2019 at 8:21 pm #516276
    mika84
    Member
    • Topics: 99
    • Replies: 149
    • ☆☆☆

    Dear Chris,
    Please help to find out an explanation for the following:
    In exam kit there is a problem :
    Carying amount at 31.03.2012=80000 remaining useful life=4 years

    Revalued amount 112000 with 5 years useful life

    In solution they make a transfer of 6400 to retained earnings (32000 revaluation gain over 5years)

    I dont understand this. Following my text book it should be 2400 (new depreciation=22400 less old depreciation=20000).Am i missing anything ?

    May 18, 2019 at 11:13 pm #516387
    aliahmed1994
    Member
    • Topics: 38
    • Replies: 51
    • ☆☆

    From the given information. I as well getting 2400 to be transferred to the Retained earnings and 29600 to put in the other comprehensive income for the gain.

    You haven’t posted the complete information on the revaluation date and the date for the SOFP to be reported.

    May 19, 2019 at 9:24 am #516408
    mika84
    Member
    • Topics: 99
    • Replies: 149
    • ☆☆☆

    This is past exam problem under the name of ENCA.

    A director of Enca, a public listed company, has expressed concerns about the
    accounting treatment of some of the company’s items of property, plant and
    equipment which have increased in value. His main concern is that the statement of
    financial position does not show the true value of assets which have increased in
    value and that this ‘undervaluation’ is compounded by having to charge depreciation
    on these assets, which also reduces reported profit. He argues that this does not
    make economic sense.
    Required:
    Respond to the director’s concerns by summarising the principal requirements of
    IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment in relation to the revaluation of property,
    plant and equipment, including its subsequent treatment. (5 marks)
    (b) The following details relate to two items of property, plant and equipment (A and B)
    owned by Delta which are depreciated on a straight-line basis with no estimated
    residual value:
    Item A Item B
    Estimated useful life at acquisition 8 years 6 years
    $000 $000
    Cost on 1 April 2010 240,000 120,000
    Accumulated depreciation (two years) (60,000) (40,000)
    ––––––– –––––––
    Carrying amount at 31 March 2012 180,000 80,000
    ––––––– –––––––
    Revaluation on 1 April 2012:
    Revalued amount 160,000 112,000
    Revised estimated remaining useful life 5 years 5 years
    Subsequent expenditure capitalised on 1 April 2013 nil 14,400
    At 31 March 2014 item A was still in use, but item B was sold (on that date) for
    $70 million.
    Note: Delta makes an annual transfer from its revaluation surplus to retained
    earnings in respect of excess depreciation.

    May 19, 2019 at 3:49 pm #516438
    aliahmed1994
    Member
    • Topics: 38
    • Replies: 51
    • ☆☆

    Okay, I just learned a shortcut from this question. If you’re confused to calculate the Surplus to be transferred. Just divide the surplus amount with the new life of the asset and you will get the excess amount to be transferred. Chris please confirm if thats right?

    May 19, 2019 at 11:35 pm #516479
    aliahmed1994
    Member
    • Topics: 38
    • Replies: 51
    • ☆☆

    Okay, I’ve tried doing it with the 4 column approach as explained in the lecture, but im not getting 6400 to be transferred manually. (Comparing depreciation could be charged before the surplus of Item B with depreciation actually charged after the surplus). The depreciation should have been charged 20,000 (if no surplus) and after surplus 22400. Making it 32000-2400 = 29600 reserves and 2400 to be transferred into Retained earnings. :/

    May 20, 2019 at 12:27 am #516481
    aliahmed1994
    Member
    • Topics: 38
    • Replies: 51
    • ☆☆

    OH YES FINALLY. The depreciation charge won’t be 20,000 but 16000 if there was no surplus. 80000 Current value Divided by 5 years = 16000. Its 16000 (Historic) – 22400 = 6400 excessive charge. I was depreciating the Current value with the old life. The current value should be depreciated with the new life to be calculated against the excessive charge. Can’t believe i spent 4 hours trying to crack this.

    May 21, 2019 at 8:14 pm #516754
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7141
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I hope/think you’ve both managed to clear this up. If not then let me know.

    Thanks

    May 22, 2019 at 6:20 am #516804
    mika84
    Member
    • Topics: 99
    • Replies: 149
    • ☆☆☆

    As far as i understood from Aliahmed’s solutions, we have to take a revalued number of useful life.

    Thank you.

    May 24, 2019 at 7:23 pm #517198
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7141
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The revalued amount of the asset is depreciated over the remaining useful life of the asset. If there is a change to the life of the asset then we will base the depreciation upon the latest estimate.

    Thanks

    September 28, 2020 at 9:54 pm #586944
    haider10793
    Participant
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    So basically if there is a change in the useful life of the asset in the course of revaluation, then we must use the new useful life to calculate the cost method depreciation as well, and then determine the difference between the cost method depreciation and the revaluation method depreciation to get the excess depreciation, which is then transferred from the revaluation reserve to the retained earnings.

    October 1, 2020 at 8:40 pm #587169
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7141
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes, this is correct but I doubt that you’d see something so challenging as this in the exam.

    Thanks

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