Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Transaction cost of Debt and APV
- This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
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- November 15, 2016 at 8:55 am #349038
Dear John,
I’m working through a question which has given me a company’s current beta. The company is embarking on a new project which will be finance by debt. It doesn’t say the project is in a different industry but all the same I ungeared the current beta to get a new beta because I believe the new funding being debt will alter the company’s current gearing and hence beta to get a new cost of capital. Am I on the right track please?
Secondly, the new debt will incur a transaction cost of 2%, what happens to this 2%? Currently I have ignored (because I believe this will be part of the cost of debt) but was contemplating whether the cost should form part of the value of the debt.
Also with the new debt being used to finance the project, will this mean APV (All equity NPV plus the PV of tax saved)?
Many Thanks
Carlos
November 15, 2016 at 5:12 pm #349103It is very difficult to give you a proper answer without seeing the whole question (and the wording).
Subject to that, it does seem you are on the right track with your first paragraph.
With regard to the transaction cost – it depends on the wording of the question. It might be that you have to raise more than the amount stated (to cover the transaction cost) or it might be that the transaction cost is paid out of existing funds.
With regard to the last bit, is does sound as though it is APV, although usually these days the question makes it clear if APV is wanted.
November 15, 2016 at 5:51 pm #349120Hi John,
Thanks for this. You are right. I read the requirements again and it did say to use APV. With regards to the wording of the issue cost please see below
The new issue will incur transaction costs of 2% of the issue value at the date of issue.
RequiredMany Thanks
Carlos
November 15, 2016 at 5:59 pm #349127You are very welcome 🙂
November 15, 2016 at 7:53 pm #349133Hi John,
This is the full question. Is there a way I could send you my solution to review for me please. I got a negative NPV and feel like I’ve missed something out.
Neptune is a listed company in the telecommunications business. You are a senior financial
management advisor employed by the company to review its capital investment appraisal procedures
and to provide advice on the acceptability of a significant new capital project – the Galileo.
The project is a domestic project entailing immediate capital expenditure of $800 million at 1 July
20X8 and with projected revenues over five years as follows:
30 June 30 June 30 June 30 June 30 June
Year ended 20X9 20Y0 20Y1 20Y2 20Y3
Revenue ($ million) 680.00 900.00 900.00 750.00 320.00
Direct costs are 60% of revenues and indirect, activity based costs are $140 million for the first year of
operations, growing at 5% per annum over the life of the project. In the first two years of operations,
acceptance of this project will mean that other work making a net contribution before indirect costs of
$150 million for each of the first two years will not be able to proceed. The capital expenditure of $800
million is to be paid immediately and the equipment will have a residual value after five years’
operation of $40 million. The company depreciates plant and equipment on a straight-line basis and,
in this case, the annual charge will be allocated to the project as a further indirect charge.
Preconstruction design and contracting costs incurred over the previous three years total $50 million
and will be charged to the project in the first year of operation.
The company pays tax at 30% on its taxable profits and can claim a 50% first year allowance on
qualifying capital expenditure followed by a writing down allowance of 40% applied on a reducing
balance basis. Given the timing of the company’s tax payments, tax credits and charges will be paid
or received twelve months after they arise. The company has sufficient other profits to absorb any
capital allowances derived from this project.
The company currently has $7,500 million of equity and $2,500 million of debt in issue quoted at
current market values. The current cost of its debt finance is $LIBOR plus 180 basis points. $LIBOR is
currently 5·40%, which is 40 basis points above the one month Treasury bill rate. The equity risk
premium is 3·5% and the company’s beta is 1·40. The company wishes to raise the additional finance
for this project by a new bond issue. Its advisors do not believe that this will alter the company’s bond
rating. The new issue will incur transaction costs of 2% of the issue value at the date of issue.
Required
Estimate the adjusted present value of the project resulting from the new investment and from the
refinancing proposal and justify the use of this technique.November 16, 2016 at 5:43 am #349195You must not type out full questions like this because of copyright issues.
Since it is a past exam question, all you need to do is give the name of the question and which exam sitting it was in.You cannot send me your solution, but you must have the examiners answer and be able to see from there where you have gone wrong.
You should use this forum to ask about whatever it is in the answer that you are not clear about.
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