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In a(ii), why hasn’t the change in effective interest rate of 6% been incorporated while the calculation of the year end value of the bond?
And also I have a confusion with this, that why did not we make such a table which had Opening Balance, Effective Int Rate, Cash Flow, and Closing balance in it? Rather the answerer just made a discounted cash flows table in both a(i) and a(ii).
Could you please help me with these 2 doubts?
Thanks 🙂
I can’t access the hub at present – please can you give me enough detail so I can understand what you are asking.
Also, please use the topic rather than the question name as the thread header in future posts.
🙂