Section B question 2 (b) of the Sep/Dec 2016 paper asks to calculate the % change in the selling price required for the investment to have a zero NPV… Can you please tell me why our discounted revenue cash flows are multiplied by 0.75? Are we calculating the after-tax revenue cash flows then discounting?
Yes. For every $1 change in the revenue, the profit will change by $1 and therefore the tax will change by $1 x 0.25. So the net effect is a change of $1 = 0.25x$1 = $1 x 0.75