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Sir I have read that the probability of economic benefits flowing from a separately acquired intangible asset are assumed to be met.
So does this mean we recognise such assets even when at acquisition of such an asset the probablilty of inflows is low?Hi,
Would you purchase an intangible where there the likelihood of economic benefits is low?
Thanks
Obviously no. Actually my doubt came after doing question Chemclean where the acquirer did not conclude the benefits from the production of a product using the acquired intangible are probable.
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