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Reversal of impairment in Revaluation model

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Reversal of impairment in Revaluation model

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 7, 2018 at 5:14 am #466528
    trainee1
    Participant
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 30
    • ☆☆

    Hello sir

    this sentence is somehow extracted from ias 36:
    when reversing an impairment, we should not give an asset account an adjusted value greater than it would have been if we hadn’t impaired it in the first place and above this amount would be treated as a ‘normal’ revaluation(if we use revaluation model).

    i know what are the entries if our previous impairment in SOPL is GREATER than the difference between NBV before revaluation upward(A) and NBV if we hadn’t impaired it(B)(we should Credit SOPL=B-A and credit R.R=amount after revaluation-B) BUT my question is about where our previous impairment in SOPL is LOWER than the difference between NBV before revaluation upward(A) and NBV if we hadn’t impaired(B).
    what are the credit entries?
    1-SOPL=previous impairment in SOPL
    R.R(balancing fig.)=amount after revaluation – above amount

    OR

    2-SOPL=B-A
    R.R(balancing fig.)=amount after revaluation-B

    let me explain my question with an example:
    assume that we purchase a building on 1.1.2000 for $200m(10 years).
    at 31.12.2000 we revalue it to $300m.
    at end of 2001 we impair it to $120m.
    at end of 2002 revaluer said it worths $500m.
    this is the entitys poilcy to transfer extra depreciation from R.R to R.E annualy when necessary.
    what are the entries for end of 2002?

    i know
    end of 2000:
    dep.=20
    NBV increases from 180 to 300 so :
    D;PPE 120
    C;R.R 120

    end of 2001:
    dep=33.3
    Extra dep. to be transfered from R.R to R.E:
    D;R.R 13.3
    C:R.E 13.3

    we impair asset from 266.7 to 120 so
    D;R.R 106.7(120-13-3)
    D;SOPL 40
    C;PPE 146.7

    end of 2002:
    Dep=15

    the asset value increases from 105 to 500.
    MY PROBLEM is here.

    which is correct?
    1-
    D;PPE 395
    C;SOPL 40
    C;R.R 355(Balancing fig.)

    OR
    2-D;PPE 395
    C;SOPL 128.4 (NBV if we had not impair it(266.67-33.3=)233.4-105)
    C;R.R 266.6(Balncing fig.)

    Or
    3-any thing else

    this may happened in the real life RARELY but please help me to learn it.

    August 13, 2018 at 8:08 pm #467751
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7149
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    I’ve looked at your question several times and it is far too lengthy and confusing for me to make full sense of.

    Essentially if you are reversing an impairment then you need to look at what the value of the asset would have been if we had not performed the original impairment. The reversal of the impairment goes through profit or loss first and any reversal above this figure goes through OCI and not profit or loss. So if you had a reversal of 100 and the asset was currently as 75, whereby the asset would have been held at 110 then 35 of the reversal goes through profit or loss and the remains in 65 through OCI.

    Thanks

    August 14, 2018 at 5:27 am #467795
    trainee1
    Participant
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 30
    • ☆☆

    Hello Sir.
    Thank you for your reply and I am sorry for my bad question.

    in your simple example if that reversed amount(100) was previously debited to SOPL only then for reversal i agree with your entries.

    But what if part of that reversed amount(100) was previously debited to R.R (eg 70)-because the entity has revaluation reserves- and the remainning was debited to SOPL(30)-which is lower than the difference between 75 and 110(ie 35).
    what is the amount to be Credited in SOPL and R.R in this case(which one is correct)?
    1-D;PPE 100
    C:SOPL 30
    C:R.R 70

    or
    2-D:PPE 100
    C:SOPL 35
    C:R.R 65

    thank you for your time

    August 15, 2018 at 12:04 pm #467965
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7149
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    If the asset has been previously revalued then you will need to use the associated revaluation reserve first.

    Thanks

  • Author
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