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Regarding real rate for perpetuity

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Regarding real rate for perpetuity

  • This topic has 8 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 3 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 9 posts - 1 through 9 (of 9 total)
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  • June 24, 2022 at 5:15 pm #659254
    dennissherpa101
    Member
    • Topics: 58
    • Replies: 60
    • ☆☆

    Sir in the lecture you mentioned to use real rate for perpetuity. since it is hard to keep on inflating the cash flow however in the valuation of share we do have perpetual cashflow and there was also growth involved and we could still calculate the present value. How it this different?

    June 24, 2022 at 5:34 pm #659257
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is not different. The formula for the value of the share is derived by discounting the dividend at the real rate.

    June 24, 2022 at 5:48 pm #659258
    dennissherpa101
    Member
    • Topics: 58
    • Replies: 60
    • ☆☆

    But there was growth. isn’t it similar to inflation? and if the rate of required return is the real rate shouldn’t the default cost of capital also be real cost of capital?

    June 25, 2022 at 11:07 am #659270
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes, arithmetically dividend growth is the same as inflation.

    I do not know what you mean by ‘default cost of capital’.

    When appraising projects, the we discount the nominal/actual cash flows at the actual cost of capital, or alternatively (and there is no choice if it is a perpetuity) we discount the current price flows at the real cost of capital (the cost of capital with the inflation removed).

    When calculating the market value of a share, it is the PV of the dividends discounted at the shareholders actual required rate of return. If there is dividend growth in perpetuity, we discount the current dividend at the real required rate of return (the actual required return with inflation removed). The formula is doing exactly this.

    June 25, 2022 at 11:42 am #659275
    dennissherpa101
    Member
    • Topics: 58
    • Replies: 60
    • ☆☆

    Sir if that is the case then will we need to convert to actual rate after wacc calculation since it is the real rate wacc

    June 25, 2022 at 4:46 pm #659285
    dennissherpa101
    Member
    • Topics: 58
    • Replies: 60
    • ☆☆

    Sir forgive me if I wasn’t clear enough. What I am trying to say is is it possible to calculate the present value of of cashflows that are in perpetuity with inflation with the same formula we use to calculate the market value of share? replacing growth with inflation and the cost of capital would be the actual cost of capital? is this possible?

    June 26, 2022 at 10:13 am #659325
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes, using the same formula will give exactly the same result and is fine 🙂

    June 26, 2022 at 4:33 pm #659348
    dennissherpa101
    Member
    • Topics: 58
    • Replies: 60
    • ☆☆

    So in the exam if actual cost of capital is given and inflation is also given can I use formula (with growth)

    June 27, 2022 at 7:28 am #659373
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes you can 🙂

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