Hi Sir,
The question is from the BPP booklet Q. 139 on page 40.
Question:
"Isaac & Joseph purchased new machinery on 1 January 20X5 for $1,000,000. It has a residual value of $200,000, with the useful life deemed to be 8 years. The plant is depreciated on a straight line basis.
Tax allowances of 50% of the cost of the asset can be claimed in the year of purchase, as depreciation is not allowed for tax purposes. The rate of income tax is 30%
Identify whether a deferred tax asset of liability should be recognised at 31 December 20X5 and at what amount?"
ANSWER:
Tax Liability = $60,000.
How is this the case? This answer assumes that we only compare the depreciable value ($800,000 - $100,000 (depreciation)) of the carrying value to the tax base (500,000)?
This directly conflicts with the logic used in the below's lecture example?
https://opentuition.com/acca/fr/ias-12-example-accelerated-capital-allowances-acca-financial-reporting-fr/
Please help! This has made me so confused as to where I am going wrong!!
David
Ask the Tutor ACCA FR
Question on F7 - Tax - So confused!!!!
Hi,
It looks wrong to me. They should be looking at the carrying value of the asset of $900,000 ($1,000,000 cost less $100,000) depreciation.
Thanks
Thank you! I always assume I am wrong first before the answer booklet from experience haha.
Thanks again.
David
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