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Candy must issue VAT invoices charging her customers the VAT that she should have charged on sales from the date she should have been registered by
Why is this statement false.
Also what does the date she should have been registered by mean
A company has to be VAT registered to charge VAT. So she cannot charge VAT until registered.
The date she should have been registered means that she met the criteria but failed to register at on time.
I think in this scenario that she would have to pay VAT on the pre registration sales proceeds, so if she took 12,000 in that time she would have to pay 2000 as VAT @ 20%