The last sentence of the answer says ‘However, an impairment has taken place and, in the circumstances, the recoverable amount would be FVLCTS.’ I’m just lost why it FVLCTS would be chosen when we don’t have any figures. do we automatically choose the FVLCTS over the Value in use because it’s for sale?
As the asset is being under-utilised the value in use would be minimal, and therefore the FVLCTS would be higher.
Thanks
Author
Posts
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Cookies
We serve cookies. If you think that's ok, just click "Accept all". You can also choose what kind of cookies you want by clicking "Settings". Read our cookie policy