- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 1 year ago by .
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
OpenTuition recommends the new interactive BPP books for June 2024 exams, Get your discount code >>
Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Q.36 Kenduri (BPP revision kit)
Hi, the spread of the spot exchange rate is given as 1.5938 — 1.5962 (US$/pound), so if I buy US$, I use 1.5938. If I sell US$, I use 1.5962.
In the sample answer, when converting the $2,381,543 into UK pound, am I not supposed to sell $ to get UK pound, and hence, I use 1.5962. But, 1.5938 is used instead to convert $2,381,543 into 1,494,255 pound. Please may I know why that is so?
Thank you.
If they were receiving US$’s then you would be correct.
However they are not receiving US$’s – there is a net payment of $’s and therefore they are buying $’s and therefore use 1.5938.