If revalued asset is disposed than we say that revaluation is realized and we transfer it to retained earnings. Now question is, let’s say we’ve got an asset of $100 and accumulated dep’n of $10, and we revalued it to $120, so revaluation is $30. Assume, we sold it right after revaluation for the same amount – $120, then it is fair to say that $30 is realized, but what if we sold it for less, let’s say $110, then $20 is realized and we transfer only 20 to retained earnings? And if yes, what we do with remaining $10 of revaluation reserve in regard of the asset which is sold?