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John Moffat.
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Noah098
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John sir why can’t we take impairment loss to OCI directly, even if we don’t have a pre-existing revaluation gain relating to that asset?
I mean when an upwards revaluation can be taken to OCI then why not, a downwards too? I mean why does there needs to be a pre-existing gain in revaluation surplus, before a downward revaluation can be placed in OCI?
John Moffat
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This is not examinable in Paper FA 🙂
Noah098
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