Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA AFM Advanced Financial Management Forums › *** P4 December 2015 Exam was.. Instant Poll and comments ***
- This topic has 137 replies, 53 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by jeffrey1989.
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- December 12, 2015 at 7:55 am #291290
mate please condider this
the downside of tranching is, the company can only issue a percentage of the total receipts to serve as incentive to subscribe the loan, in the exam it was 80% i thinktoo much costs involved in setting up the programme
it can send bad signals about a company cuz if u hear that a company is doing tranching, this means the company desperately needs cash and is willing to loose some of the receivables 20% just to get the 80% cash and this can cause share price fluctuations
sukuk is islmaic bonds,
the only difference with coporate bonds is that sukuk there is no interest paid annually. the compensation is in the form of sharing of gains made by the issuer of the bond in the investment he made the gain. if he made no gain in the investment then the bond holders get nothing.
this means as a company issuing sukuk bonds u must have had a good history of being a good business company so that all bonds can be subscribed for.
December 12, 2015 at 7:56 am #29129180% question 4 was by far the easiest on paper if on had read article on securitization and islamic fianace.
December 12, 2015 at 11:18 am #291338@Obiora and Juve: Thanks brothers. You made my day. I used 90% as collateral pool as well. InshaAllah we all will get through. great start of the day. Just woke up after a good long night sleep.
December 12, 2015 at 11:46 am #291342q3 was provided euro options. how can a company buy euro put now if it does not own any euros?
in the previous questions its usually buy call options of home currency. US company receive euro in future needs buy us$ Call to hedge against euro depreciates.
im really confused can anyone help to clarify?
December 12, 2015 at 12:33 pm #291354@yanchen15 you buy put option to hedge Euro receipt because the contract currency was also in Euros. So when you receive Euros on 28th Feb you will sell those euros to money changer/bank to buy $s. As contract Currency is also in euros so you will buy 164 Put Options. so the decision on whether to go for PUT OR BUY IS BASED ON WHAT YOU ARE DOING WITH CONTRACT CURRENCY. iN SUMMERY IF SEELING CONTRACT CURRENCY THEN PUT; AND IF BUYING CONTACT CURRENCY THEN CALL.
December 12, 2015 at 2:20 pm #291360AnonymousInactive- Topics: 1
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@faisal1990 said:
I did the same for Q3 contract size was denominated in euros therefore it was sell futures now and buy later at the date of the spot transaction in 3 months time had to calculate the futures price using the basis i guess. did any one else did the same thing?For options it was put options since we had to sell the euro contracts.
how many contracts did you get for options and futures
December 12, 2015 at 2:33 pm #291362@harriet88 said:
Other option was P5 which I sat on Wednesday! Fingers crossed never have to sit one again!! Did you sit P7 this sitting or last?Nah, I just sat P4 this time round. Did P2 and P7 together, then P1 and P3 together in December 2014. Fingers crossed! 18 January are results right? P7 seemed a significant amount of writing for the amount of marks, but is to be expected given it’s a wordy paper! How was P5?
December 12, 2015 at 3:55 pm #291371AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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@sam04071989 said:
Nah, I just sat P4 this time round. Did P2 and P7 together, then P1 and P3 together in December 2014. Fingers crossed! 18 January are results right? P7 seemed a significant amount of writing for the amount of marks, but is to be expected given it’s a wordy paper! How was P5?P5 was ok but find it difficult to understand what they are asking so might be a re-sit
December 12, 2015 at 4:28 pm #291374Anybody remembers what was q1(d)
December 12, 2015 at 5:14 pm #291381@esoluyemo said:
You will divide all of them.You buy futures and not selling futures. You will sell futures if you are borrowing or making payments.
Here, you are expecting to receive payment in Euro and the bank is buying dollar. This means the bank is buying futures.
I did the same, but got confused with futures calculation and ended up getting really long figure!
December 12, 2015 at 6:22 pm #291397In terms is of Q3 – did it ask to just set up the hedges in relation to FRA,Futures and Options not to show the result of the hedges?
Might be wrong here but I just set up the hedges using the three questions for Futures and Options,
1, Buy or Sell
2. how many conts
3. which dateAm I on the right lines or have I missed something?
Also thought the discussion section was worded funny – found it difficult to ascertain what they were after.
So i describes the benefits of using derivatives to reduced Forex risk and then I described the difference between treasury and finance department and the benefits or having the sep department. My writing by this point was horrific though due to tiredness – hope this can be overlooked.
Additionally i would advise anyone to tackle section B first as section one is very time consuming and can bog you down from collecting easier marks on shorter questions when you are fresh.
December 12, 2015 at 8:33 pm #291416hello everyone,
p-e was given to calculate the value of manufacturing part of victim comp. ,total value to shareholder of aquirer was
current value of shareholding of preditor
+ pv value of r&d dep.cash flow discounted @ combined wacc
+ pv of synergies benifit discounted @ combined wacc
+ value of manufacturing part of victim company
less
value of shareholding of victim + primium
it really was quite ok question
,,how ever hedging question was tricky as future and optionsDecember 12, 2015 at 8:44 pm #291418@jeffrey1989 said:
In terms is of Q3 – did it ask to just set up the hedges in relation to FRA,Futures and Options not to show the result of the hedges?Might be wrong here but I just set up the hedges using the three questions for Futures and Options,
1, Buy or Sell
2. how many conts
3. which dateAm I on the right lines or have I missed something?
Also thought the discussion section was worded funny – found it difficult to ascertain what they were after.
So i describes the benefits of using derivatives to reduced Forex risk and then I described the difference between treasury and finance department and the benefits or having the sep department. My writing by this point was horrific though due to tiredness – hope this can be overlooked.
Additionally i would advise anyone to tackle section B first as section one is very time consuming and can bog you down from collecting easier marks on shorter questions when you are fresh.
Not sure for the question about setting up or actually hedging, I did the whole calculations doing the premium for options, the tick size, and the cost of hedge.
I found the part b of Q3 to be worded funny too, and ended up taking assumptions and other risks, but later figured it was actually asking about basis risks and the over and under hedging.
December 12, 2015 at 8:46 pm #291419hi mate, i failed to do all that cuz the mark allocation was just 18 marks and there was two calculations, finding the value of anatra first and then this one u talking about. i just tried to do the first one and i managed to complete it, probably thatll give me a 9 then i moved on.
cuz iv read in the examiner reports that students should know that the easy marks are at the start. i traded 9 marks for time and energy to complete the other simpler theories which were worth 28 made a good report format and then i moved to the options with absolutely big time on my side. had i tried to be greedy in the other calculation , it will be so tricky and impossible to calculate and itl compromise my entire exam.i remembered having 10 minutes bonus time left, i then went back and tried to scribble down something there to get me a mark or a couple and thats all, it was worth only maxumum 10 marks.
This technique of mine i suggest should be used by future p4 candidates
December 13, 2015 at 6:11 am #291439AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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I got WACC of approx 14% in Q1
I used the following steps at arriving at this:
1) ungear C’s beta equity to arrive at C asset beta
2) weight asset betas of both companies (C and A) to receive combined asset beta as instructed in question
3) re-gear combined asset beta to arrive at combined equity beta
4) using CAPM receive Ke
5) using pre-tax cost of debt 6% of combined Co receive WACC at approx. 14% (ratio of 40:60 holds after business combination)
6) this WACC was used to discount potential synergy (tax&lay offs)Why so many people here write that they got 9%?
December 13, 2015 at 6:21 am #291440AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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It was to explain Mandatory bid, equitable treatment and squeeze-out takeover requirements
December 13, 2015 at 7:13 am #291446@vasabk said:
I got WACC of approx 14% in Q1
I used the following steps at arriving at this:
1) ungear C’s beta equity to arrive at C asset beta
2) weight asset betas of both companies (C and A) to receive combined asset beta as instructed in question
3) re-gear combined asset beta to arrive at combined equity beta
4) using CAPM receive Ke
5) using pre-tax cost of debt 6% of combined Co receive WACC at approx. 14% (ratio of 40:60 holds after business combination)
6) this WACC was used to discount potential synergy (tax&lay offs)Why so many people here write that they got 9%?
Precisely, thats what i did
December 13, 2015 at 12:48 pm #291485Was this the first ever foreign currency hedging question where you are given the contracts in the foreign currency (euros) as opposed to the home currency (dollars) ? I think this meant that when calculating the number of contracts there was no conversion to be done as the figures were already in euros. And likewise for the gain/loss on the futures and the premium for the options there was no conversions to be done as the figures were already in dollars?
December 13, 2015 at 1:47 pm #291490@dennis98 said:
Was this the first ever foreign currency hedging question where you are given the contracts in the foreign currency (euros) as opposed to the home currency (dollars) ? I think this meant that when calculating the number of contracts there was no conversion to be done as the figures were already in euros. And likewise for the gain/loss on the futures and the premium for the options there was no conversions to be done as the figures were already in dollars?True, the currency wasn’t supposed to be converted before calculating no of contracts.
However when calculating the premium you had to convert because the premium prices were given in Cents. i.e Home currency.
December 13, 2015 at 2:30 pm #291495thanks vasabk
December 13, 2015 at 3:08 pm #291497@Faisal 1990: I think regarding premium, you didn’t have to convert because premium will be in $ already and when you convert the Euro receipt on 28th feb to $ then you will deduct $ premium from that receipt.
That’s how I did it regarding currency option.December 13, 2015 at 4:14 pm #291501AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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hopefully i got some luck with March sitting.
December 13, 2015 at 5:10 pm #291509I started with Q3, then did Q2, it was rather easy, then I had 1.5 hour left for Q1 but it was so hard for me…I did all about theory, but the main part of 18 mark was terrible for me((
December 13, 2015 at 8:45 pm #291538Does Anybody remember How many parts Q3 had. I think there were only two parts. if anybody remembers pls share and respective marks aswell.thanks
December 13, 2015 at 10:00 pm #291562If I m not mistaken, the Q3:
a – chose hedging option (13 marks)
b – factors to consider when chosing a hedging strategy (5 marks)
c – should a separate treasury function be created (7) - AuthorPosts
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