The NCI can be determined:
1. Fair Value
2. Proportionate share of net assets:
NCI% x S's NA @ Acquisition date (as in ex. 3)
However in ex. 4, and going forward this method was used:
NCI @Acquisition date (my understanding is either method 1 or 2 as above)
add: NCI% x S's post acquisition movement (when exactly are we supposed to add this figure, and why didn't we add it in example 3)
Not sure what I'm missing here, can you advise?
Ask the Tutor ACCA FR
Non-Controlling Interest
Hi,
What you are describing is the fair value method, where we value the NCI at fair value at acquisition and then add the NCI share of post-acquisition retained earnings. This is the method that you would use in the exam.
Thanks,
i had a similar problem before. what you are missing is that in example 3, we were asked to use the proportionate share of net assets method not the fair value. i think it is also worth noting that when using the proportionate share method, our net assets are determined by adding the share capital and retained earnings of the subsidiary at reporting date and NOT by adding assets and liabilities and then netting them off. i suspect it would be double counting if we were to add S's share of retained earnings again because in example 3 we said [20%*(250 000{share capita}+900000{Retained earnings}]), so in essence we have included the subsidiary's share of post acquisition retained earnings. i hope i'm not misleading you. Chris please confirm
Yes, we've never calculated the net assets of the subsidiary in any other way as opposed to using the share capital, share premium, retained earnings and other reserves.
Thanks
Okay, I saw my mix up. Thank you both so much.
Glad you're on top of it now and that all is clear.
Thanks
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