Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Nominal and Real Cost
- This topic has 9 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by John Moffat.
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- September 6, 2020 at 7:43 pm #583716
Hello John,
Could you explain why is the difference as real and money cost
– In you lectures, you’ve said that real cost ignores inflation and money does includes an allowance for inflation but both gives the same answer.Thanks
September 7, 2020 at 9:38 am #583745The real cash flows are the nominal cash flows with the general rate of inflation removed.Discounting the nominal flows at the nominal cost of capital will give the same result as discounting the real flows at the real cost of capital (although we only do it the second way if the question specifically asks for it, or if it is a perpetuity).
September 7, 2020 at 5:29 pm #583875Hello John,
Thank you for your answer.
Why do we need both of them if they give the same answer?Thanks
September 8, 2020 at 8:38 am #584011We don’t unless the question asks for both (as one past exam question did).
September 12, 2020 at 10:16 am #585287Dear Sir
I think since tax benefit from TAD is not affected by inflation, NPV resulted by 2 approach will be different ?
Thank youSeptember 12, 2020 at 2:18 pm #585319No it will not be different. If the general inflation is removed from the nominal flows (including the tax flows) and these real flows are then discounted at the real cost of capital, the result will be the same.
September 12, 2020 at 2:51 pm #585334Do you mean that it will always be the same ?
September 12, 2020 at 3:54 pm #585353Yes. Look at Q32 from the March/June 2019 sample questions.
September 12, 2020 at 4:35 pm #585362But Q1 in Dec2013, it is not same.Please help me to explain.
September 12, 2020 at 5:19 pm #585369If you look at the examiners note as to the alternative approach, that is the same.
That is the approach that the examiner now seems to prefer.
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