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Money market

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Money market

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 months ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 9, 2022 at 9:15 am #658069
    Shi2004
    Participant
    • Topics: 79
    • Replies: 33
    • ☆☆

    The debt finance will be provided by an immediate €6.5 million loan notes issue. The interest rate on the loan issue is 8% per year with annual interest being payable in 2 installments in euros on a 6monthly basis of €260000. What should Gn do in dollar now to correctly set up a money market hedge on payment of interest expected in 6month time.
    The spot rate is €1.3050-€1.3112
    Why do we use 1.3050 as spot rate and not the other rate???

    June 9, 2022 at 3:47 pm #658123
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 56
    • Replies: 51875
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You have not typed up the full question.

    I assume that that company in question is in the US?

    Also is the spot rate quoted as $/€ or as €/$?

    If it is a past exam question or a question in the BPP Revision Kit, then tell me which question.

    June 9, 2022 at 4:24 pm #658149
    Shi2004
    Participant
    • Topics: 79
    • Replies: 33
    • ☆☆

    Sir its actually in the pre mock june 22. The home currency is $. The spot rate is Euro to $1. The spot exchange rate €1.3050-€1.3112

    June 9, 2022 at 4:43 pm #658159
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 56
    • Replies: 51875
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    To pay the interest they need to buy €’s. Given that the exchange rate is quoted as €/$ then buying €’s means that we use the lower rate. (Using the higher rate would result in a lower payment which cannot ever be the case as I explain in my lectures.)

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