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MCQ varience

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › MCQ varience

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • Author
    Posts
  • May 24, 2015 at 1:22 pm #248409
    elizabeth
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 0
    • ☆

    this is a question from opentution mcq test

    Y plc produces widgets.
    Each widget should take 0.5 hours to make. The standard rate of pay is $10 per hour. Idle time is expected to be 5% of hours paid.

    They actually produce 10,800 units. They pay $50,000 for 6,000 hours, of which 330 hours are idle.

    What is the excess idle time variance?

    Answer : 316 adverse

    why is the answer not 3300(A) ?

    May 24, 2015 at 5:34 pm #248490
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54687
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Why should it be 3,300 (A)??

    It seems that you have not watched the lecture on advance idle time variances!

    The standard idle time is 6,000 x 5% = 300. The actual idle time is 330. Therefore they were idle for 30 hours more than they should have been.

    The standard rate of pay is $10 per hour. Therefore the standard cost per working hour is 10/0.95 = $10.53 per hour.

    Therefore the variance is 30 x $10.53 = $316.

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