note vi for marchant which deals with the split between p and l and revaluation surplus when reversing a revaluation increase why was the full 2.2 taken from OCI? why wasnt 2.2- (1.44-1.2) = 1.96 debited from the revaluation surplus instead? is this only done to the charge to p and l i.ewhen the reversal is an increase in the value of the item of ppe? i noticed martin jones doing it to revaluation surplus...some please answer i beg
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SBRMarchant bpp question 47 revision kit 2016
9y ago#1wesbyss, you've been asked once before to stop answering technical questions on this forum and if you continue to do so then you will be removed.
@wesbyss said: I guess the question did not mention that the company reverse the excess depreciation from revaluation reserve, so it is presumed that the depreciation for the current year (1.44) has all been booked in P&L.thank you very much wesbyss...understood.
@P2-D2 said: wesbyss, you've been asked once before to stop answering technical questions on this forum and if you continue to do so then you will be removed.Why cant he answer sir? i thought the forums were for students to ask and answer each other? i think he is doing a good job and answers rather promptly...
9y ago#4As there have been instances in the past where he has been incorrect and not answered the question from an exam perspective. This has then led to confusion amongst students as they then try and understand some of the technical detail that won't help them in the exam.
This forum is for any non-technical issues and where students can discuss their experiences on P2.
Thanks
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