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- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 3 years ago by Stephen Widberg.
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- July 18, 2021 at 2:44 pm #628182
Hello, thanks for your videos and explanation.
I came across this question and I’m not sure about the answer.Luploid Co issued 100 options to each of Hammond Co’s 10,000 employees on 1 July 20X7. The shares are
conditional on the employees completing a further two years of service. Additionally, the scheme required that the
market price of Luploid Co’s shares had to increase by 10% from its value of $30 per share at the acquisition date
over the vesting period. It was anticipated at 1 July 20X7 that 10% of staff would leave over the vesting period but
this was revised to 4% by 30 June 20X8. The fair value of each option at the grant date was $20. The share price
of Luploid Co at 30 June 20X8 was $32 and is anticipated to grow at a similar rate in the year ended 30 June
20X9.ANSWER : The fair value of the replacement scheme at the grant date is $18 million (100 x 10,000 x 90% x $20). Since
$9 million has been allocated to the cost of the investment, the remaining $9 million should be treated as part of the post
combination remuneration package for the employees and measured in accordance with IFRS 2 Share-based Payment.
The fair value at the grant date of the share-based scheme should be expensed to profit or loss over the two-year vesting
period. Subsequent changes to the fair value of the shares are ignored.my question : If the expectation was revised to 4% from 10%, why don’t we take the revised 4% ?
100 shares x 10,000 employees x $20 x 96% [new revised] = $ 19.2m
the rest of the question is fine when he deducts the amount already taken as part of cost of investment and divides it over the vesting period.
thanks
July 19, 2021 at 7:36 am #628568(On future posts, please use the topic not the question number as the thread header. If you wish to reply please set up a new thread. Finally, if possible, do not copy and paste whole questions. 🙂 )
I think that under IFRS 3, goodwill, they have to sort out the fair value, at the acquisition date. They are not aware of the change to 4%, which only comes to light one year later. The answer is not very clear about what actually happens when they do the year end accounts. Page 270-ish of the KPMG handbook details the rules, but they don’t have an example. As always, in SBR, it is an appreciation of the principles that matters, not the numbers.
KPMG:
https://home.kpmg/content/dam/kpmg/xx/pdf/2018/11/ifrs-2-handbook-2018.pdf
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