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Lirio Co Mar/June 2016 Question 1b ii)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Lirio Co Mar/June 2016 Question 1b ii)

  • This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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  • September 3, 2018 at 11:22 am #470951
    Avataranna13481
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 0
    • ☆

    Hi, i have the following confusing regarding this question. In part b ii), i am asked to comparing the hedging policies. In currency futures i was calculating the basis by using current price (spot rate) 0.8632 – futures price (0.8656)=-0.0024
    Then i calculated the unexpired basis as -0.0024/4=-0.006
    So my forecast futures price on 30 May = 0.8656- (-0.006)=0.8662
    but the answer given is 0.8650
    please explain

    September 3, 2018 at 4:40 pm #471007
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You should have subtracted the 0.006 (0.8656 – 0.0006 = 0.8650)

    The spot and futures prices get closer together, and so the lock-in rate (which is what you are calculating) must be between the two.

    June 1, 2019 at 3:15 pm #518214
    Avatarbik123
    Member
    • Topics: 55
    • Replies: 79
    • ☆☆

    Hi Sir,

    I have assumed that spot rate in 3 months is 3 month forward rate so 1/1.1559. Then i added unexpired basis of 0.0006. When spot rate at the day of transaction is not given can we assume forward rate? thank you!

    June 1, 2019 at 4:56 pm #518251
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No. You cannot assume that the spot rate will be equal to the forward rate – it would be remarkable in practice if it were the same.

    If the spot rate is not given (as it usually is not these days in the exam) then you calculate the lock-in rate (I explain what it is, and how to calculate it, in my free lectures on foreign exchange risk management).

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