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levante (12/11)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › levante (12/11)

  • This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • March 4, 2015 at 10:03 am #231213
    student07
    Member
    • Topics: 193
    • Replies: 162
    • ☆☆☆

    Sir in this solution b (i)
    (i) Value of 5% coupon bond
    $5 x 1·0385–1 + $5 x 1·0446–2 + $5 x 1·0507–3 + $5 x 1·0580–4 + $105 x 1·0612–5 = $95·72
    Hence the bond will need to be issued at a discount if only a 5% coupon is offered.

    can you please explain me the last line that the bond need to be issued at discount.

    Thanks.

    March 4, 2015 at 12:43 pm #231235
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54704
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The bonds have a nominal value of $100, and you would usually expect them to be issued for $100. However, they can be issued at a discount.

    Since the value here is $95.72 they will need to be issued at that price (nobody would be prepared to pay $100 for them if they are only really worth $95.72).

    September 12, 2015 at 7:17 pm #271527
    ahmar
    Participant
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    please refer to Dec 2011 Question 3 “LEVANTE Co”

    https://www.accaglobal.com/content/dam/acca/global/pdf/p4_2011_dec_q.pdf

    We are required to calculate the Market Value of the bond (which will be the value at which it will be issued to investors)

    The bond is a 5% coupon, par value $100, 5 yr, Rating A

    We are given a credit spreads table. Its simply a matter of choosing the right credit spread and discounting the bonds cash flows to arrive at market value.

    PROBLEM

    instead of choosing the 5 yr credit spread for A rating for all the years (112 bp + 5% = 6.12%) the answer uses a SEPERATE discount rate for each years cash flow.

    yr1 . 3·85% .$5
    yr2 . 4·46% .$5
    yr3 . 5·07% . $5
    yr4 . 5·80% . $5
    yr5 . 6·12% . $105

    https://www.accaglobal.com/content/dam/acca/global/PDF-students/acca/p4_2011_dec_a.pdf

    Now refer to question “Do It Yourself”. In this question they use a SINGLE discount rate chosen from the credit spread table for each years payment. I have seen in other questions as well that the SINGLE discount rate is used for all years. So if a bond is a 10 yr bond, the 10 yr yield spread is used for all the years.

    kindly tell why two different methods are chosen ???

    September 13, 2015 at 9:43 am #271558
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54704
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I understand what seems a conflict.

    However in Levante the question is asking to estimate the market value given they are issuing at a fixed coupon rate, whereas Do it Yourself is after the cost of the debt.

    Levante was set by the current examiner (the other questions were set by previous examiners) and he had written an article before setting the question explaining the approach that he wanted. If he asks something similar again, then this is what he will want.

    Here is the article:
    https://www.accaglobal.com/ubcs/en/student/exam-support-resources/professional-exams-study-resources/p4/technical-articles/bond-valuation-yields.html

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