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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Lease payments
Hello
For lease payments made in arrear why is ‘current liability’ element calculated as the difference between year end balances of two years, why not take the lease amount that would be payable in the next 12 months as its done when lease payments are made in advance.
Hi,
Have you watched the videos on leases as this is covered in them. If on watching them you still do not understand then please let me know.
Thanks
