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- This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 10 months ago by P2-D2.
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- March 4, 2022 at 3:45 pm #649832
hi sir,
This right-of-use lease relates to a new piece of machinery. The fair value of the machine is $220,000. The agreement requires Blocks Co to pay a deposit of $20,000 on 1 January 20X5 followed by five equal annual instalments of $55,000, starting on 31 December 20X5. The implicit rate of interest is 11.65%.
For agreement one, what is the finance cost charged to profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X6?
Answer:19607
Hi sir, im confused, the payment made is in arrear( mentioned starting on 31 December 20X5) so I assume its arrears. My answer: finance cost= 220000×11.65%=25630..pls correct me sir.
Thank you.
March 5, 2022 at 11:07 am #649883Hi,
If the payment is in arrears then you are correct to apply the interest to the outstanding capital balance for the year. Here, I’m not convinced that your $220,000 starting figure is correct. Check what it should be and then you will get the right answer when applying the 11.65%.
Thanks
February 11, 2024 at 2:34 am #700078I am doing this question and i do not understand why the $20000 was deducted from the $220000 to get the opening balance? can you explain why i thought because it was an immediate deposit payment it was to be added to the cost. Unless if it formed part f the $220000. kindly explain.
February 15, 2024 at 4:23 pm #700431Hi,
The fair value represents the present value of the total lease payments (deposit plus lease payments), not the future lease payments (no deposit as not a future lease payment), and so the deposit needs to be deducted.
Thanks
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