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Lamri co de 2010

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Lamri co de 2010

  • This topic has 13 replies, 5 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 14 posts - 1 through 14 (of 14 total)
  • Author
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  • November 14, 2014 at 9:27 am #209874
    ASHOK
    Member
    • Topics: 64
    • Replies: 103
    • ☆☆

    It is about the Lamri Co from Dec2010
    I find every thing ok with the official answer written by ACCA by I have some problem which I did not understand why it has not take the account of Depreciation while calculating cash flow to the equity as I know cash flow to the dividends capacity of the company,
    The question says ———– 1. An investment equivalent to the amount of depreciation to keep its non-current asset base at the present productive capacity. Lamri charges depreciation of 25% on a straight-line basis on its non-current assets of $15 million. This charge has been included when calculating the operating profit amount. 2. A 25% investment in additional non-current assets for every $1 increase in sales revenue. 3. $4•5 million additional investment in non-current assets for a new project.
    Lamri also requires a 15% investment in working capital for every $1 increase in sales revenue.
    I want to know that why depreciation such as 25% of non current assets is not added back and why it did not atke the account of depreciation since lamri require 25% investment in addition non current assets for every 1$ increase in revenue
    That is 25% x (20/120 x 80,000) = $3333.3

    $000 Operating profit (30% x $80,000,000) 24,000
    Less interest (8% x $35,000,000) (2,800)
    Less taxation (28% x (24,000 – 2,800)) (5,936)
    Less investment in working capital (15% x (20/120 x 80,000)) (2,000)
    Less investment in additional non-current assets (25% x (20/120 x 80,000)) (3,333) Less investment in project (4,500) Cash flows from domestic operations 5,431
    Cash flows from overseas subsidiary dividend remittances (W1) 3,159
    Additional tax payable on Magnolia profits (6% x 5,400) (324)
    Dividend capacity 8,266

    According to me it should be

    $000 Operating profit (30% x $80,000,000) 24,000
    Less depreciation 25% x (20/120 x 80,000) = (3333.3) Less interest (8% x $35,000,000) (2,800) Less taxation (28% x (24,000- 3333.33– 2,800)= ( 5002.6)
    Add back depreciation
    Old assets 25% $15m = 3.75
    New assets due to increase in sales 25% x (20/120 x 80,000) = $3333.3
    Less investment in working capital (15% x (20/120 x 80,000)) (2,000)
    Less investment in additional non-current assets (25% x (20/120 x 80,000)) (3,333) Less investment in project (4,500) Cash flows from domestic operations 6367.85
    Cash flows from overseas subsidiary dividend remittances (W1) 3,159
    Additional tax payable on Magnolia profits (6% x 5,400) (324)
    Dividend capacity 9202.85

    Please tell me where I am wrong

    November 14, 2014 at 10:28 am #209904
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Point 1 in the question says that depreciation has already been subtracted in arriving at the operating profit, so you do not subtract it again in order to calculate the tax.

    Also, although the depreciation itself is not a cash flow and so would normally be added back, it is equal to the investment needed in the existing non-current assets (nothing to do with the amount needed for additional non-current assets).

    November 14, 2014 at 1:52 pm #209970
    ASHOK
    Member
    • Topics: 64
    • Replies: 103
    • ☆☆

    i have subtracted only depreciation for 25% investment for every $1 increase in sales revenue before calculating tax and adding it tax has calculated. because question has said a 25% investment for every increase in $1 revenue.

    November 15, 2014 at 10:57 am #210153
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The answer has assumed that the depreciation on the additional non-current assets will only apply in later years (not in the year of the expenditure).

    November 30, 2014 at 3:12 am #214565
    ASHOK
    Member
    • Topics: 64
    • Replies: 103
    • ☆☆

    th@nK you JHOn MOFF@£

    my serious problem solved,

    concept clear

    November 30, 2014 at 8:30 am #214626
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

    December 2, 2015 at 7:34 pm #287066
    ogohuldar
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 47
    • ☆☆

    Sir ,

    why is the investment in non current asset and working capital calculated as 15% x 20/120 x 80 ? I thought it will be 15% x 20/100 x 80. why 20/120?

    December 3, 2015 at 7:33 am #287136
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I assume that you have looked at the original question (because Ashok only typed the parts of the question that were relevant to his problem)?

    For every 100 profit this year, the profit next year will be 20% higher at 120.
    Therefore for every 120 next year, the increase will have been 20.

    Since it is 80 next year, the increase will have been 20/120 x 80.

    December 3, 2015 at 7:44 pm #287356
    ogohuldar
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 47
    • ☆☆

    Sir,

    In Pursuit Co question, for additional investment requires 18c per increase in sales revenue. in this case 18/100 x 3013 (the increase) was used…

    I’m kind of confused on when to divide by 100 or by 100 plus the percentage increase. in this case 18/118

    December 4, 2015 at 7:55 am #287419
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It depends which years you are given and the wording of the question.

    August 28, 2016 at 12:41 pm #335759
    Małgorzata
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    Sir,
    Why do we deduct inv in working capital, non current assets and inv in new project from PAT, after tax calculation? I wanted to deduct it from operating profit and calculate tax after that. I would appreciate your clarification

    August 28, 2016 at 5:12 pm #335818
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Because investment in working capital never affects the taxable profit.
    Investment in non-current assets and in new project does not affect taxable profit either (but obviously give rise to capital allowance tax savings).

    August 27, 2017 at 8:54 am #403724
    parisnaaa
    Member
    • Topics: 32
    • Replies: 92
    • ☆☆

    Hi John. In this question the tax allowable depreciation isn’t added back but in Limmi co ( c) (June 2013) the tax allowable depreciation haa been added back. Why is that?

    August 27, 2017 at 10:44 am #403739
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You have not read my first reply in this thread carefully.

    Depreciation is not a cash flow and so is added back. In Lamri, the question says that they are investing an amount equal to the depreciation to maintain the non-current assets.

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