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kaplan- Asscoiate

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › kaplan- Asscoiate

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 months ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 26, 2018 at 11:02 am #475781
    adarsh1997
    Participant
    • Topics: 646
    • Replies: 282
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Hello
    Green Co is an associate undertaking of Purple Co. Purple Co owns 30% of the shares in
    Green Co, and has done so for many years. During the year ended 31 December 20X4,
    Green Co made a net profit of $1.5 million. Green sold goods to Purple Co during the year
    with a value of $2 million, and half are still in Purple’s inventories at year end. All the goods
    were sold at a margin of 30%.
    Purple has recognised previous impairments in relation to its investment in Green Co of
    $225,000. In the current year, Purple wishes to recognise an additional impairment charge
    of $35,000.
    What is the share of profit of associate to be shown in Purple’s consolidated statement of
    Profit or Loss?
    A $100,000
    B $115,000
    C $325,000
    D $415,000.

    1. The answer is C.
    2. The working in the book is as follows:
    Share of Net Profit: 30% * 1,500,000 450,000
    Share of PURP: 30%*[(2m*50%)*30%] (90,000)
    Current Year impairment (35,000)

    3. Could you explain why PUP has been deducted?
    -It’s the associate selling to the company. Why should we remove the PUP?

    September 26, 2018 at 8:13 pm #475811
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7141
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    If there is a transaction between the associate and parent then we need to remove the influence that we have over the profit, so effectively our share of the PUP.

    The associate has made the profit through the sale, hence the share of the PUP is removed from its books.

    Thanks

    November 26, 2024 at 2:13 pm #713542
    saad582
    Participant
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    I don’t understand. Why we take 30 perecent 2 times. can u explain
    Share of PURP: 30%*[(2m*50%)*30%] (90,000)

    December 3, 2024 at 12:37 pm #713750
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7141
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    The first 30% is the margin and the second is the share of the associate. It is purely coincidence that they are the same figure.

    Thanks

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