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Hi,
Would you know they are squaring 1.09 when they are using the DVM in question 4 part A 50 million (the subsequent value) of the company?
I can not see the logic in it at all. Is it because we are in year zero and the subsequent value is in 2 years time?
https://www.accaglobal.com/content/dam/acca/global/PDF-students/acca/f9/exampapers/f9_2013_jun_a.pdf
https://www.accaglobal.com/content/dam/acca/global/PDF-students/acca/f9/exampapers/f9_2013_jun_q.pdf
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