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June 2012 Q1 Part B

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA APM Advanced Performance Management Forums › June 2012 Q1 Part B

  • This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by paul12345.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 29, 2014 at 4:06 pm #171677
    paul12345
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    Could some1 please help me with this?

    Im trying to figure out where they get the answer for the following:

    PV 2010 = 179,516

    2011 = 292169

    2012 = 303626

    I know its probably simple but I cant figure it out & its driving me mad!

    Thanks

    June 2, 2014 at 12:05 pm #172597
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    Paul,

    I’m struggling with the same point, can someone please help?

    June 2, 2014 at 1:35 pm #172635
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 74
    • ☆☆

    Cash Flow

    Year 2010 = 141,840 * 1.125^2
    Year 2011 = 259,705 * 1.125
    Year 2012 = 303,626 * 1

    12.5% is cost of capital.

    The reason for doing this is he wants to see business performance to date i.e 2012.

    June 2, 2014 at 2:03 pm #172642
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    Many thanks Melnic. So in fact we’re compounding rather than discounting as we’re looking from a point in the future?

    I think my problem was I didn’t consider the free cashflow needs derived in advance.

    Melnic, any chance you know why interest was not deducted to arrive at free cashflow?

    June 2, 2014 at 2:24 pm #172651
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 74
    • ☆☆

    interest is not operating cash flow. it is cash from investment activities.

    June 2, 2014 at 10:41 pm #173032
    paul12345
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    Thanks melnic

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