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Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA APM Advanced Performance Management Forums › June 2012 Q1 Part B
Could some1 please help me with this?
Im trying to figure out where they get the answer for the following:
PV 2010 = 179,516
2011 = 292169
2012 = 303626
I know its probably simple but I cant figure it out & its driving me mad!
Thanks
Paul,
I’m struggling with the same point, can someone please help?
Cash Flow
Year 2010 = 141,840 * 1.125^2
Year 2011 = 259,705 * 1.125
Year 2012 = 303,626 * 1
12.5% is cost of capital.
The reason for doing this is he wants to see business performance to date i.e 2012.
Many thanks Melnic. So in fact we’re compounding rather than discounting as we’re looking from a point in the future?
I think my problem was I didn’t consider the free cashflow needs derived in advance.
Melnic, any chance you know why interest was not deducted to arrive at free cashflow?
interest is not operating cash flow. it is cash from investment activities.
Thanks melnic
