Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › June 2011 Q1 -BRT Co
- This topic has 6 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by John Moffat.
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- December 3, 2012 at 8:32 pm #56124
Why has he distributed working capital for 4 years? I normally deduct WC form year zero and add back it in the last year of the project.
I don’t understand what the examiner has done in that question.December 3, 2012 at 8:41 pm #109855Sorry. I understood what he has done. This is the first question I came across like this. It is Increasing by 3% each year because of inflation.
Thank youDecember 4, 2012 at 9:49 am #109856Glad you sorted it 🙂
May 30, 2013 at 9:54 am #127767In part b, why does he divide the 4th year cashflow by 0.12 pls.?
May 30, 2013 at 5:15 pm #127848It is because we are asked to work out the present value of the flow in perpetuity.
The discount factor for a perpetuity is 1/r (where r is the relevant interest rate – here 12%).
I hope that makes sense – it you are not sure about the rest of the calculation in part (b) then ask again (1/r is for when the cash flow starts at time 1 – here it starts later and so we need to discount for the extra years)
PS The ACCA has asked everyone to no longer publish the names of the examiners, so I have removed his name from your question 🙂 )
May 30, 2013 at 7:54 pm #127891That is great, thx for your reply, now it makes sense the way you explained it 😀
May 30, 2013 at 8:22 pm #127896I am glad it makes sense 🙂
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