• Skip to primary navigation
  • Skip to main content
  • Skip to primary sidebar
Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums for ACCA and CIMA exams

  • ACCA
  • CIMA
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Books
  • Forums
  • Ask AI
  • Search
  • Register
  • Login
  • ACCA Forums
  • Ask ACCA Tutor
  • FIA Forums
  • CIMA Forums
  • OBU Forums
  • Qualified Members forum
  • Buy/Sell Books
  • All Forums
  • Latest Topics

March 2026 ACCA Exams Results

Comments & Instant poll

Save 20% on ACCA & CIMA Books

Interactive BPP books for June 2026 exams, recommended by OpenTuition.
Get discount code >>

June 2011 Q1 -BRT Co

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › June 2011 Q1 -BRT Co

  • This topic has 6 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 12 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
Viewing 7 posts - 1 through 7 (of 7 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • December 3, 2012 at 8:32 pm #56124
    Avatarmyaccca
    Member
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 73
    • ☆☆

    Why has he distributed working capital for 4 years? I normally deduct WC form year zero and add back it in the last year of the project.
    I don’t understand what the examiner has done in that question.

    December 3, 2012 at 8:41 pm #109855
    Avatarmyaccca
    Member
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 73
    • ☆☆

    Sorry. I understood what he has done. This is the first question I came across like this. It is Increasing by 3% each year because of inflation.
    Thank you

    December 4, 2012 at 9:49 am #109856
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Glad you sorted it 🙂

    May 30, 2013 at 9:54 am #127767
    Avatarmatt
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆

    In part b, why does he divide the 4th year cashflow by 0.12 pls.?

    May 30, 2013 at 5:15 pm #127848
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is because we are asked to work out the present value of the flow in perpetuity.

    The discount factor for a perpetuity is 1/r (where r is the relevant interest rate – here 12%).

    I hope that makes sense – it you are not sure about the rest of the calculation in part (b) then ask again (1/r is for when the cash flow starts at time 1 – here it starts later and so we need to discount for the extra years)

    PS The ACCA has asked everyone to no longer publish the names of the examiners, so I have removed his name from your question 🙂 )

    May 30, 2013 at 7:54 pm #127891
    Avatarmatt
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 19
    • ☆

    That is great, thx for your reply, now it makes sense the way you explained it 😀

    May 30, 2013 at 8:22 pm #127896
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I am glad it makes sense 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 7 posts - 1 through 7 (of 7 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Log In

Primary Sidebar

ACCA News:

ACCA My Exam Performance for non-variant

Applied Skills exams is available NOW

ACCA Options:  “Read the Mind of the Marker” articles

Subscribe to ACCA’s Student Accountant Direct

ACCA CBE Exams – Instant Poll

How was your exam, and what was the exam result?

BT CBE exam was.. | MA CBE exam was..
FA CBE exam was.. | LW CBE exam was..

Donate

If you have benefited from OpenTuition please donate.

PQ Magazine

Latest Comments

  • Princek23 on FR Revision Mock Exam
  • AllisonHoang on Sources of data – ACCA Management Accounting (MA)
  • Gyette on The Finance Function in the Digital Age – CIMA E1
  • mrjonbain on IASB Conceptual Framework – Introduction – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)
  • mrjonbain on IASB Conceptual Framework – Introduction – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)

Copyright © 2026 · Contact · Advertising · OpenLicense · About · Sitemap · Privacy Policy · Cookie settings · Comments · Log in