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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › June 2011 Q1 -BRT Co
Why has he distributed working capital for 4 years? I normally deduct WC form year zero and add back it in the last year of the project.
I don’t understand what the examiner has done in that question.
Sorry. I understood what he has done. This is the first question I came across like this. It is Increasing by 3% each year because of inflation.
Thank you
Glad you sorted it 🙂
In part b, why does he divide the 4th year cashflow by 0.12 pls.?
It is because we are asked to work out the present value of the flow in perpetuity.
The discount factor for a perpetuity is 1/r (where r is the relevant interest rate – here 12%).
I hope that makes sense – it you are not sure about the rest of the calculation in part (b) then ask again (1/r is for when the cash flow starts at time 1 – here it starts later and so we need to discount for the extra years)
PS The ACCA has asked everyone to no longer publish the names of the examiners, so I have removed his name from your question 🙂 )
That is great, thx for your reply, now it makes sense the way you explained it 😀
I am glad it makes sense 🙂
