Dear Tutor
Please explain the following example.
Ishmail Co issues $20m of 4% convertible loan notes at par on 1 January 20x7. The loan notes are redeemable for cash or convertible into equity shares on the basis of 20 shares per $100 of debt at the option of the loan note holder on 31 December 2011. Similar but non-convertible loan notes carry an interest rate of 9%.
The present value of $1 receivable at the end of the year based on discount rates of 4% and 9% can be taken as:
End of year
1. 0.96(4%) 0.92(9%)
2. 0.93 0.84
3. 0.89 0.77
Cumulative 2.78 2.53
Show how these loan notes should be accounted for in the financial statements at 31 December 20x7.
Statement of profit or loss
Finance costs (W2) 1,568
Statement of financial position
Equity – option to convert (W1) 2,576
Non-current liabilities
4% convertible loan notes (W2) 18,192
Workings
1. Equity and liability elements
-3 years interest (20,000 × 4% × 2.53) 2,024
-Redemption (20,000 × 0.77) 15,400
-Liability element 17,424
-Equity element (?) 2,576
Proceeds of loan notes 20,000
2.Loan note balance
Liability element (W1) 17,424
Interest for the year at 9% 1,568
Less interest paid (20,000 × 4%) (800)
Carrying value at 31 December 2009 18,192
I don't understand why do we multiply three years of intrest as the question states to show the loan notes at the end of year of 20x7 and not three years after.
I also dont understand why on redemption we multiply 20.000*0.77 ?
Thank you!
Ask the Tutor ACCA FR
Ishmail Co Bpp essential reading
Hi,
The first working is the fundamental working for any convertible loan notes. We calculate the PV of the cash flows assuming that it is a 100% debt instrument with non-conversion option. This is done by looking at the PV of the cash interest payment over the instrument's life (3 years) and the PV of the redemption amount at the end of the third year.
The amount calculated is then used to work out the equity element. Have a look at the videos on convertible instruments and this will help you too.
Thanks
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