Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Is this a hybrid instrument that should be separated?
- This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by P2-D2.
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- April 10, 2018 at 8:38 pm #446045
If you have a so called “off-market derivative” – that is a derivative, for example an interest rate swap that has a negative value. I’ve been told these should be separated in two – into a loan component and a derivative that is “at-the-money” (value is equal to nil).
Does this solution stem from IFRS 9 4.3.3? These derivatives are seen as a hybrid contract – that shall be separated? Please help me understand this…
Thanks
April 10, 2018 at 10:20 pm #446057Just to be clear, I mean a derivative that is off-market (has negative value) at inception
April 11, 2018 at 9:10 pm #446239Hi,
I’m no expert on interest rate swaps with negative values (what does that even mean?) and not fully acquainted with “off-market derivatives” so I doubt I’d be able to answer this one.
Sorry
April 11, 2018 at 11:30 pm #446253Hi again!
It just means that the terms of the swap are different to market terms, so that for one of the parties it has a positive value and for the other a negative value. This is balanced in some way, for example through a lump sum payment between the parties at inception, so in essence it’s a swap with a financing component
April 15, 2018 at 5:11 pm #446726I’d speak to the person who has told you that it should be separated as they’ll be able to explain. They sound to be much more knowledgeable than I am.
Thanks
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