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invt appraisal qstn (mcq)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › invt appraisal qstn (mcq)

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 3 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • September 4, 2021 at 8:55 am #634236
    cadhakan
    Participant
    • Topics: 71
    • Replies: 123
    • ☆☆

    An investment of $120,000 on 1 April 20X6 is forecast to yield a net cash flow of $14,000 each year for four years commencing on 31 March 20X8, followed by $20,000 each year in perpetuity. The appropriate cost of capital is 8% per year.

    What is the positive net present value of the investment at 1 April 20X6 (to the nearest $1,000)?

    Select one:
    $80,000
    $81,000
    $93,000
    $110,000

    sir can you please explain me this qstn as i confused when solving this qstn..

    September 4, 2021 at 11:57 am #634270
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54701
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The 14,000 a year for 4 years is an annuity and therefore discount using the 4 year annuity factor at 8%. However since the annuity starts 1 years late (at time 2 instead of at time 1), the answer needs discounting for 1 year at 8% to arrive at the PV now.

    For the perpetuity of 20,000, the discount factor is 1/0.08 as normal. However since it starts 5 years late (at time 6 instead of at time 1) the answer needs discounting by 5 years at 8% to arrive at the PV now.

    I think it may help you to watch the Paper MA lectures on investment appraisal because this is very much a Paper MA level question.

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