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investment property

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › investment property

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by P2-D2.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • July 7, 2018 at 1:47 pm #461229
    hagun527
    Member
    • Topics: 17
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    hello

    could you explain why use the fair value model the gain is 1000k? why the cost for sell does not need to be deducted?

    “a company acquired a building with a 40-year life for its investment potential for 8 million on 1 January 20×3, at 31 December 20×3 the fair value of the property was estimated at 9 million with costs to sell estimated at 200k ”

    thank you

    July 8, 2018 at 7:53 pm #461336
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7207
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    The cost at the acquisition date is $8 million and has risen to a fair value of $9 million at the reporting date, hence the gain of $1 million.

    It is not necessary to account for the costs to sell as we revalue to fair value under IAS 40, and not the fair value less costs to sell, a figure you may have seen in another standard.

    Thanks

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