I had a doubt about IAS treatment about investment property. (Jun’07 Q3)
It reads “Lament owns a residential apartment above its head office. Until 31 December 2006, it was let for $3,000 a month. Since 1 January 2007, it has been occupied rent-free by the senior sales executive.”
Do we need to derecognize the investment property (and reclassify it)?