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INVENTORY

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › INVENTORY

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 2 years ago by Eunice03.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
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    Posts
  • September 29, 2022 at 6:15 pm #667566
    Eunice03
    Participant
    • Topics: 88
    • Replies: 70
    • ☆☆

    317. Debit Credit
    $m $m
    Inventory at 31 December 20X8 8.6
    The inventory count was completed on 31 December 20X8, but two issues have been noted. First, products with a sales value of $0.6m had been incorrectly excluded from the count. Second, items costing $0.2m which had been included in the count were damaged and could only be sold for 50% of the normal selling price. Diaz Co makes a mark?up of 50% on both of these items.

    SOLUTION
    The correct answer is $8.95m. This is the $8.6m plus the $0.4m missing items ($0.6m ×
    100/150) less the write down of $0.05m ($200,000 – $150,000 (normally sold for $300,000
    but actually being sold at $150,000)

    Good day,Please i don’t understand how the write down value was calculated. Why was the $150,000 removed from $200,000,I’ll appreciate if you can explain you can explain better.

    October 1, 2022 at 9:37 am #667631
    P2-D2
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 7163
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Hi,

    OK, so inventory is valued at the lower of cost and NRV. There are current goods costing $200,000 are included at cost in the inventory valuation and have been damaged. They are in at $200,000 as this was the lower of the cost and NRV, as it is usually sold at a 50% mark-up meaning the NRV would be higher.

    We now need to assess if that NRV is still higher given the information in the question. If it is still higher then we don’t need to do anything and if not then we need to make an adjustment.

    We are told that the goods can only be sold for 50% of their normal selling price, and the normal selling price is $300,000 (=200,000 x 150/100). We are therefore going to sell them at $150,000 (=50% x 300,000) and so they have reduced the 200,000 down to the 150,000, resulting in the 50,000 reduction (200,000 – 150,00).

    Thanks

    October 1, 2022 at 8:32 pm #667662
    Eunice03
    Participant
    • Topics: 88
    • Replies: 70
    • ☆☆

    I understand now.Thank you

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